1. What is the updated Policy Repo Rate announced during the RBI Monetary Policy Committee meeting on June 5, 2026?
2. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India as mentioned in the June 2026 report?
3. What is the newly revised real GDP growth projection made by the RBI for the current fiscal year (FY27)?
4. What is the updated Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation projection set by the RBI for FY27?
5. Under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) operationalized in June 2026, what is the fixed Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
6. What are the current values for the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate respectively?
7. Which monetary policy stance did the MPC decide to continue with during the June 2026 review?
8. What was the headline CPI inflation reported for April 2026 as per the RBI Governor’s statement?
9. What was the stable core inflation percentage cited by the RBI Governor in the June policy highlights?
10. What is the current Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) mandated by the RBI as per the June 2026 monetary update?
11. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) value maintained by the RBI in June 2026?
12. The RBI exempted which bank positions from the calculation of their Net Overnight Open Position in Rupee (NOP-INR) limits?
13. Measures announced by the RBI and the government to attract foreign capital are expected to bring in how much inflows?
14. In March, what specific cap did the RBI prescribe for banks’ net open position in rupee (NOP-INR) in the onshore deliverable market?
15. The $100 million cap on NOP-INR positions was aimed at curbing arbitrage positions between which two markets?
16. To attract foreign capital into Government Securities under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), the RBI included all new issuances of which tenors into ‘specified securities’?
17. Under the General Route of FPI investment, which limits were completely removed by the RBI in June 2026?
18. The RBI has increased equity market investment limits without SEBI registration for which categories of investors?
19. At par with NRIs and OCIs, the equity investment facility without SEBI registration was extended to which of the following?
20. Up to when will the RBI provide the concessional forex swap facility to incentivize External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) by PSUs?
21. Authorised Dealer (AD) banks raising fresh 3 to 5-year FCNR(B) deposits can avail of the full hedging cost bearing facility up to which date?
22. What change has the RBI proposed regarding the time allowed for the realization of export proceeds?
23. What is the fundamental principle behind the RBI’s exchange rate policy as reiterated by the Governor?
24. When will the consolidated regulatory instructions for Risk, Compliance, and Internal Audit functions come into effect?
25. What is the minimum fixed tenure mandated by the RBI for the appointment of a Chief Risk Officer (CRO), Chief Compliance Officer (CCO), and Head of Internal Audit (HIA)?
26. What administrative prerequisite must be satisfied by a commercial bank to prematurely transfer or remove its CRO, CCO, or HIA?
27. Senior officials selected to serve as CRO, CCO, or HIA must not be more than how many levels below the MD & CEO?
28. To whom do the CRO, CCO, and HIA report functionally under the consolidated June 2026 framework?
29. How frequently must the CRO, CCO, and HIA meet the board or its committee without the presence of senior management?
30. What voting power does a Chief Risk Officer (CRO) possess when attending meetings of credit sanction and approval committees?
31. If a bank chooses to assume a risk contrary to the CRO’s advice, whose approval is required?
32. Within how many days must any appointment, reappointment, removal, or exit of a Chief Risk Officer (CRO) be reported to the RBI?
33. What must a bank provide to the regulator before appointing or removing Chief Compliance Officers (CCOs) and Heads of Internal Audit (HIAs)?
34. Under the Responsible Business Conduct (Second Amendment) Directions, 2026, what practice regarding third-party products is explicitly banned?
35. If a third-party product is essential as a risk-mitigation tool (e.g., insurance with home loan), what option must banks give customers?
36. How is “mis-selling” explicitly defined under the newly released RBI Master Directions?
37. What are the compensation requirements for a bank when a case of mis-selling is officially established?
38. Within how many days of selling a financial product must banks establish mechanisms to seek customer feedback?
39. What is the term used by the RBI to describe manipulative digital platform interfaces designed to trick or mislead users into unwanted actions?
40. Which of the following is cited by the RBI as an illustrative example of a prohibited “dark pattern”?
41. What operational guideline has been issued for sub-agents or representatives of third-party service providers present on bank premises?
42. The RBI permitted Authorised Dealer banks to open repatriable rupee accounts for which category of international investors to purchase listed shares?
43. Under what schedule of the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, are these repatriable equity investments governed?
44. What new reporting category has been introduced for AD banks to track equity operations by overseas individuals?
45. For loans guaranteed under the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) 5.0, what risk weight can lenders assign to the guaranteed portion?
46. To qualify for the zero per cent risk weight under ECLGS 5.0, within how many days must the guarantee invocation settlement be expected?
47. Which regional office of the Reserve Bank of India launched the mass awareness campaign titled ‘RBI Reelathon 2026’?
48. Who is the target audience of the state-wide cyber financial fraud mass awareness campaign ‘RBI Reelathon 2026’?
49. Across approximately how many colleges will the first phase of the RBI Reelathon 2026 awareness initiative be conducted?
50. Under the RBI’s concessional swap facility for overseas foreign currency borrowings (OFCBs), what is the minimum maturity required for the borrowings?
Quiz Summary
Final Score: 0.0
