Fundamental Rights are one of the most important topics in the Indian Polity section of Railway exams, such as RRB NTPC, RRB Group D, and RRB ALP. Questions from this topic are frequently asked because Fundamental Rights form the backbone of the Constitution of India and define the basic rights and freedoms available to every citizen. Fundamental Rights are mentioned in Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution and ensure equality, freedom, justice, and protection against exploitation. These rights help maintain democracy and protect citizens from unfair actions by the government. Because of their importance, examiners often include direct as well as concept-based questions related to Fundamental Rights in Railway recruitment exams. In this article, we have provided the most important questions on fundamental rights for railway exams along with a free PDF.
Download Important Questions on Fundamental Rights for Railway Exams PDF
The PDF below shows the most repeated and important fundamental rights questions for exam aspirants. Download the PDF and get to know the type of questions asked:
Practice the Most Important Questions on Fundamental Rights (Live)
Given below are the most repeated and important exam questions for fundamental rights. Attempt them live and check your score as per the real exam marking scheme. You will get +1 for every correct answer, -1/3 for every wrong answer.
1. Under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT included in the definition of ‘State’?
A. Parliament of India
B. A registered private company with no government shareholding
C. A statutory corporation created by Parliament
D. The Government of a Union Territory
Correct Answer: B
2. Which landmark case established that an instrumentality or agency of the State falls within the definition of ‘State’ under Article 12?
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. Rajasthan State Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal
C. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Correct Answer: B
3. Under Article 13(2), any law made by the State in contravention of Fundamental Rights shall be:
A. Voidable at the option of the aggrieved party
B. Void to the extent of contravention
C. Suspended until Parliament rectifies it
D. Referred to the Supreme Court automatically
Correct Answer: B
4. The term ‘Law’ under Article 13 includes which of the following?
A. Constitutional amendments only
B. Ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs and usages
C. Personal laws only
D. Judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
Correct Answer: B
5. The doctrine of Eclipse in constitutional law refers to:
A. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
B. Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with FR being dormant but revived if FR is amended
C. Automatic repeal of post-constitutional laws violating FR
D. Eclipsing of Directive Principles by Fundamental Rights
Correct Answer: B
6. The doctrine of Severability under Article 13 implies:
A. That the entire Act becomes void if any part violates FR
B. That only the part of a law which violates FR is void, not the whole law
C. That the President can sever the violating part
D. That Parliament must re-enact the law after severability
Correct Answer: B
7. Constitutional amendments are NOT ‘law’ under Article 13 was held in:
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Correct Answer: C
8. Which of the following is treated as ‘other authority’ under Article 12?
A. A purely private club
B. Life Insurance Corporation of India
C. A cooperative society with no government aid
D. A private school without government grant
Correct Answer: B
9. Personal laws (like Hindu law or Muslim law) have been held by the Supreme Court to be:
A. Subject to Part III of the Constitution fully
B. Not ‘law’ under Article 13 in some contexts
C. Always void if they conflict with FR
D. Protected under Article 25 from being tested against FR
Correct Answer: B
10. The ‘waiver of Fundamental Rights’ by an individual is:
A. Permissible for all Fundamental Rights
B. Not permissible for most Fundamental Rights as they are constitutional rights
C. Permissible only in writing before a magistrate
D. Permissible only for Article 19 rights
Correct Answer: B
Section 2: Article 14 – Right to Equality
11. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law. Which concept does ‘equal protection of law’ borrow from?
A. British Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. Irish Constitution
D. Canadian Constitution
Correct Answer: B
12. The concept of ‘reasonable classification’ under Article 14 requires:
A. That classification must be based on historical precedent
B. An intelligible differentia which has a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved
C. That all persons in the country are treated identically
D. Legislative approval of the classification by two-thirds majority
Correct Answer: B
13. The ‘new doctrine of equality’ propounded by the Supreme Court in E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu holds:
A. Equality is a fixed concept defined only by classification tests
B. Arbitrariness is antithetical to equality; any arbitrary State action violates Article 14
C. Equality protects only economic rights
D. Article 14 applies only to legislative actions, not executive actions
Correct Answer: B
14. Which of the following does NOT violate Article 14?
A. A law imposing heavier punishment on women than men for the same offence
B. A law providing special benefits to scheduled castes in public employment
C. A law taxing all merchants except those in a specified region without rationale
D. A law exempting only one religion from civic obligations
Correct Answer: B
15. The Supreme Court extended the applicability of Article 14 to judicial decisions through which case?
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak
C. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Correct Answer: B
16. ‘Class legislation’ is prohibited by Article 14, whereas ‘classification’ is permitted. Which statement correctly distinguishes the two?
A. Class legislation benefits only the rich; classification benefits only the poor
B. Class legislation confers privileges arbitrarily; classification is based on rational differentia with a nexus to the object
C. Class legislation is permanent; classification is temporary
D. Class legislation is made by Parliament; classification is made by courts
Correct Answer: B
17. Under Article 14, the State cannot deny equal protection of law. Which of the following entities is bound by Article 14?
A. Only Parliament
B. Only the executive branch
C. Both legislature and executive, but not judiciary
D. Legislature, executive, and in certain contexts, judiciary
Correct Answer: D
18. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that legitimate expectation is a facet of Article 14?
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation
C. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
D. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
Correct Answer: B
19. Article 14 allows for differential treatment. Which of the following is a valid ground for differentiation?
A. Race of persons
B. Religion of persons
C. Reasonable classification based on intelligible differentia
D. Gender in all cases
Correct Answer: C
20. The principle that ‘equals must be treated equally and unequals unequally’ is associated with which philosopher?
A. John Rawls
B. Aristotle
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. John Locke
Correct Answer: B
Section 3: Articles 15–16 – Prohibition of Discrimination & Equal Opportunity
21. Article 15(3) of the Constitution permits the State to make special provisions for:
A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes only
B. Women and children
C. Other Backward Classes only
D. Economically Weaker Sections
Correct Answer: B
22. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 15(5) to enable reservation in:
A. Government jobs
B. Private and unaided educational institutions
C. Parliament seats
D. State legislatures
Correct Answer: B
23. Article 15(4) was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment?
A. 1st Amendment, 1951
B. 7th Amendment, 1956
C. 42nd Amendment, 1976
D. 44th Amendment, 1978
Correct Answer: A
24. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment added Article 15(6) providing reservation of up to ___% for Economically Weaker Sections:
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 27%
Correct Answer: C
25. Which case held that the ‘creamy layer’ concept applies to Other Backward Classes but NOT to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
A. Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
B. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
C. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
D. Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta
Correct Answer: B
26. Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination in public employment on which grounds?
A. Only religion and caste
B. Religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence
C. Only place of birth and residence
D. Only sex and descent
Correct Answer: B
27. Article 16(4A) permits reservation in promotions for which category?
A. OBCs
B. EWS
C. SCs and STs only
D. Women
Correct Answer: C
28. The Supreme Court in M. Nagaraj v. Union of India held that for invoking Article 16(4A), the State must prove:
A. Only backwardness of the group
B. Backwardness, inadequacy of representation, and no adverse impact on administrative efficiency
C. Only inadequacy of representation
D. Only administrative efficiency
Correct Answer: B
29. ‘Carry forward rule’ in reservation was upheld to a maximum of ___% of total vacancies by the Supreme Court:
A. 49%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 45%
Correct Answer: B
30. Under Article 16(3), Parliament can make law prescribing residence requirement for public employment in which areas?
A. Any State in India
B. A State, Union Territory, or local authority
C. Only Union Territories
D. Only tribal areas
Correct Answer: B
What are the different types of fundamental rights currently recognised in the Constitution?
There are six types of fundamental rights currently recognised in the Constitution. For candidates preparing for Railway exams, it is important to understand not only the list of Fundamental Rights but also the key features, limitations, and landmark facts related to them. Questions in the exam may be asked in different formats, such as identifying the correct article, matching rights with their provisions, or selecting the correct statement about Fundamental Rights. Given below are the details:
- Right to Equality (Articles 14–18)
- Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22)
- Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24)
- Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28)
- Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30)
- Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
FAQs
Fundamental Rights are the basic rights and freedoms guaranteed to citizens by the Constitution. They ensure equality, liberty, justice, and protection against unfair actions by the government. These rights are essential for maintaining democracy in India.
Fundamental Rights are mentioned in Articles 12 to 35 under Part III of the Constitution. These articles define the rights of citizens and also explain the powers of the courts to protect these rights.
At present, there are six Fundamental Rights in the Constitution:
Right to Equality
Right to Freedom
Right against Exploitation
Right to Freedom of Religion
Cultural and Educational Rights
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Fundamental Rights are an important topic in the General Awareness and Polity section of Railway exams such as RRB NTPC Exam and RRB Group D Exam. Questions are frequently asked about important articles, provisions, and features of these rights.
Article 32, which provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, is known as the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution.” This term was given by B. R. Ambedkar because it allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court if their Fundamental Rights are violated.
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